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Try Valid Google Cloud Certified Professional-Data-Engineer Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Google
Exam Code Professional-Data-Engineer
Full Exam Name Google Cloud Data Engineer Professional
Certification Name Google Cloud Certified
Technology Data Engineering

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Your company built a TensorFlow neutral-network model with a large number of neurons and layers.
The model fits well for the training data. However, when tested against new data, it performs poorly.
What method can you employ to address this?

A. Threading
B. Serialization
C. Dropout Methods
D. Dimensionality Reduction

Answer: C

Question: 2

You are building a model to make clothing recommendations. You know a user’s fashion preference
is likely to change over time, so you build a data pipeline to stream new data back to the model as it
becomes available. How should you use this data to train the model?

A. Continuously retrain the model on just the new data.
B. Continuously retrain the model on a combination of existing data and the new data.
C. Train on the existing data while using the new data as your test set.
D. Train on the new data while using the existing data as your test set.

Answer: D

Question: 3

You designed a database for patient records as a pilot project to cover a few hundred patients in
three clinics. Your design used a single database table to represent all patients and their visits, and
you used self-joins to generate reports. The server resource utilization was at 50%. Since then, the
scope of the project has expanded. The database must now store 100 times more patient records.
You can no longer run the reports, because they either take too long or they encounter errors with
insufficient compute resources. How should you adjust the database design?

A. Add capacity (memory and disk space) to the database server by the order of 200.
B. Shard the tables into smaller ones based on date ranges, and only generate reports with
prespecified date ranges.
C. Normalize the master patient-record table into the patient table and the visits table, and create
other necessary tables to avoid self-join.
D. Partition the table into smaller tables, with one for each clinic. Run queries against the smaller
table pairs, and use unions for consolidated reports.

Answer: B

Question: 4

You create an important report for your large team in Google Data Studio 360. The report uses
Google BigQuery as its data source. You notice that visualizations are not showing data that is less
than 1 hour old. What should you do?

A. Disable caching by editing the report settings.
B. Disable caching in BigQuery by editing table details.
C. Refresh your browser tab showing the visualizations.
D. Clear your browser history for the past hour then reload the tab showing the virtualizations.

Answer: A

Question: 5

An external customer provides you with a daily dump of data from their database. The data flows
into Google Cloud Storage GCS as comma-separated values (CSV) files. You want to analyze this data
in Google BigQuery, but the data could have rows that are formatted incorrectly or corrupted. How
should you build this pipeline?

A. Use federated data sources, and check data in the SQL query.
B. Enable BigQuery monitoring in Google Stackdriver and create an alert.
C. Import the data into BigQuery using the gcloud CLI and set max_bad_records to 0.
D. Run a Google Cloud Dataflow batch pipeline to import the data into BigQuery, and push errors to
another dead-letter table for analysis.

Answer: D

Question: 6

Your weather app queries a database every 15 minutes to get the current temperature. The frontend
is powered by Google App Engine and server millions of users. How should you design the frontend
to respond to a database failure?

A. Issue a command to restart the database servers.
B. Retry the query with exponential backoff, up to a cap of 15 minutes.
C. Retry the query every second until it comes back online to minimize staleness of data.
D. Reduce the query frequency to once every hour until the database comes back online.

Answer: B

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Try Valid Oracle Java and Middleware 1Z0-900 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Oracle
Exam Code 1Z0-900
Full Exam Name Java EE 7 Application Developer
Certification Name Oracle Java and Middleware
Technology Application Developement

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

You need to develop a chat application, which allows the display of emoticons and images together
with text messages.
How should you configure a WebSocket endpoints to receive both text and binary messages?

A. Create two @onMessage methods in the same endpoint with appropriate parameter types.
B. Define the @onMessage methods in your endpoint with Object as parameter and check the actual
type in your code.
C. You can achieve this only by creating separate WebSocket endpoints for each message type.
D. Create two @onMessage methods, each with appropriate decoder attribute in the same
endpoint.

Answer: D

Question: 2

Which two capabilities are provided by the Java Authentication and Authorization Services (JAAS)
API? (Choose two.)

A. protecting data from unauthorized viewing by using encryption
B. verifying that a user is allowed to perform an action
C. ensuring that data is not modified in transit
D. verifying identity claims from users

Answer: B,C

Question: 3

Which interface should you implement if you want to be alerted to the lifecycle events surrounding
your task being executed by a ManagedExecutorService?

A. the Runnable Interface
B. the ManagedExecutorTask interface
C. the TaskEventListener interface
D. the ManagedTaskListener interface

Answer: D

Question: 4

Given the code fragment:
Which URL triggers the invocation of the getEmployee () method?

A. /Employees/89724
B. /Employees/J6349
C. /Employees/id:a7280
D. /Employees/id/J6349

Answer: A

Question: 5

What is true about Message-Driven Beans (MDBs)?

A. MDBs can participate in transactions.
B. MDBs are invoked synchronously.
C. Each MDBs can process messages only from a single client.
D. MDBs retain data caches between client calls.

Answer: A

Question: 6

You have been asked to implement internationalization in your JSF web application.
Where do you configure the supported locales?

A. in the tag of the Facelet page
B. in the web.xml file
C. in the faces-config.xml file
D. in the src folder

Answer: A

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Try Valid HP Web Based HPE2-CP04 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor HP
Exam Code HPE2-CP04
Full Exam Name Implementing and Modernizing Virtualization
Certification Name HP Web Based
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Is this a functionally of the HPE Hyper-Converged 250 for Microsoft Cloud Platform System Standard?
Possible Answer = It provides load balancing in a cluster.

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 2

Is this a functionality of me HPE Hyper-converged 250 for Microsoft cloud Platform system standard?
Possible Answer = It provides load balancing in a cluster.

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 3

Does HPE Synergy’s management tool integrate with this product?
Possible Answer = Chef

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

Question: 4

Is this a feature of the HPE Hyper Converged 380?
Possible Answer = pre-integrated with Microsoft Windows Server Standard edition

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 5

Is this a main functionality provided by vRealize Automation?
Possible Answer = It provides visibility into cloud infrastructure to manage cloud cost

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

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Try Valid Juniper Service Provider Routing and Switching JN0-662 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Juniper
Exam Code JN0-662
Full Exam Name Juniper Networks Certified Internet Professional Exam
Certification Name Juniper Service Provider Routing and Switching
Technology Network Applications

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Which two types of LSAs have a domain scope? (Choose two.)

A. Type 7
B. Type 2
C. Type 10
D. Type 5

Answer: C,D

Question: 2

Referring to the exhibit, what must be added to the existing configuration to ensure that per-prefix
load balancing occurs?

A. multihop
B. keep all
C. multipath
D. family inet unicast

Answer: C

Question: 3

You are asked to configure a new Layer 3 VPN.
In this scenario, which routing-instance type must be used?

A. vpls
B. evpn
C. vrf
D. 12vpn

Answer: C

Question: 4

Which authentication strategy authenticates IS-IS hello PDUs only?

A. interface authentication
B. area authentication
C. domain authentication
D. level authentication

Answer: D

Question: 5

Referring to the exhibit, in which order will ICMP traffic be processed by the configured filters and
policers for interface ge-1/0/0?

A. input filter, input policer, output policer, output filter
B. input policer, input fitter, output policer, output filter
C. input filter, input policer, output filter, output policer
D. input policer, input filter, output filter, output policer

Answer: D

Question: 6

R5 must advertise Subnet A into IS-IS so that Subnet A and Subnet B can communicate. Subnet B
must be able to forward traffic to Subnet A and towards Area 49.0001. However, R5 should not be
able to route traffic from Subnet A to Area 49.0001.
Referring to the exhibit, how would you solve this problem?

A. Configure Level 2 on all links in Area 49.0002.
B. Configure the set protocols isis ignore-attached-bit parameter on R5.
C. Configure the set protocols isis overload parameter on R6.
D. Configure an export policy on R6 to reject all routes except Subnet B towards R5.

Answer: B

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Try Valid Microsoft Certified Professional MB6-895 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code MB6-895
Full Exam Name Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations
Certification Name Microsoft Certified Professional
Technology Microsoft Dynamics 365

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Question: 21

You need to configure batch tasks to run SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) reports in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012. Which two actions should you perform’? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Use the Report servers form to link the SQL Server Reporting Services Server to the correct batch server
B. Use the Server configuration form to link the SQL Server Reporting Services Server to the correct batch server
C. Use the Email distributor batch form to configure report distribution frequency.
D. Use the Recurrence form to the schedule a report to run on a recurring basis.

Answer: A, D

Question: 22

You need to describe online analytical processing (OLAP) databases to customers.
Which two statements are specific to OLAP databases’? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. The data in the cubes periodically changes.
B. Cube processing creates many data items, each an individual record.
C. Cube processing aggregates data Into totals and subtotals.
D. The data in the cubes constantly changes.

Answer: A, C

Question: 23

Which application allows you to enable breakpoints and to review the Application Object Server (AOS) setting?

A. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Configuration
B. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 client
C. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Server Configuration
D. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 standalone prerequisite validation

Answer: C

Question: 24

You need to configure the data sources for Microsoft Office add ins.
What should you do?

A. Specify the data source module and type in the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 client.
B. Specify the data source connection string and type in the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 client.
C. Specify the data source connection string and type in the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Configuration utility.
D. Specify the data source module and type in the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Configuration utility.

Answer: D

Question: 25

You need to perform a fit-gap analysis between the business needs and the default processes of the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Accounts Payable module as
part of a new implementation
Which Lifecycle Services tool should you use?

A. Configuration manager for Accounts Payable
B. Customization analysis for Accounts Payable
C. Cloud-powered support for Accounts Payable
D. Business process modeler for Accounts Payable

Answer: D

Question: 26

You need to set up a system line number increment for a new installation of Microsoft Dynamics AX. Which types of lines are affected by this setup?

A. work order lines
B. payment journal lines
C. general journal lines
D. purchase order lines

Answer: D

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Try Valid Microsoft Certified Professional MB6-894 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code MB6-894
Full Exam Name Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operation
Certification Name Microsoft Certified Professional
Technology Dynamics 365 Enterprise

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Question: 21

You are the accounts payable manager in a European subsidiary of your company.
Your company purchases goods from a vendor that is not located in Europe. The vendor did not charge sales tax on the invoice but the customs office sends an invoice because the goods crossed the border and the company declared them at customs.
What should you do?

A. Report sales tax on the imported goods.
B. Report withholding sales tax on the imported goods.
C. Report conditional sales tax on the imported goods
D. Report sales tax exemption on the imported goods.

Answer: A

Question: 22

An accountant wants to create a journal of amount 100 USD, exclusive of sales tax, against a custom-er. The accountant needs to modify the “Amount incl. salex tax” field so that it applies only to the journal created. Which setting should the accountant use?

A. Individual Journal line
B. Individual Journal from
C. General ledger, Journal names from
D. General ledger, Parameters from

Answer: D

Question: 23

You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.
You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.
What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.
B. Decide which matrix fields to creat.
C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.
D. Decide which fields to use for the header.
E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.

Answer: ABD

Question: 24

You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules.
When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed?

A. the dimensions on the transfer
B. the amount of the transfer
C. the date of the transfer
D. the employee requesting the transfer

Answer: C

Question: 25

Your company is considering tracking budgets by Account, Department, and Cost Center dimensions. There is a requirement to prevent exceeding the budgeted amounts for each Department but not for each Cost Center.
Which three actions must be performed to allow budget control for Accounts and Department, and basic budgeting by Account, Departments, and Cost Center, before budget control is enabled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budgeting dimensions.
B. Select the main accounts for budget control.
C. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budget control dimensions.
D. Select only “Department” as a budget control dimension.
E. Select only “MainAccount,” “Department” and “CostCenter” as budgeting dimensions.

Answer: BCD

Question: 26

You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.
What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?

A. enter recurrence
B. transfer balances
C. allocate across periods
D. allocate across dimensions

Answer: A

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Try Valid Microsoft Certified Professional MB2-715 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Microsoft
Exam Code MB2-715
Full Exam Name Microsoft Dynamics 365 customer engagement Online Deployment
Certification Name Microsoft Certified Professional
Technology Dynamics 365 Enterprise

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Version: 13.0
Question: 1

You are the system administrator at your organization.
You need to quickly synchronize all customizations from your synchronizing the data.
What should you perform to accomplish this goal?

A. a clone
B. a switch
C. a full copy
D. a minimal copy

Answer: D

Question: 2

You are a system administrator at Contoso. Inc.
You need to ensure that only system administrators and system customizers
What is likely the cause of this issue?

A. Your instance is being upgraded.
B. Your storage limit was reached.
C. Your instance is in Administration mode.
D. Your instance has been reset

Answer: C

Question: 3

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You received an email informing you that you need to schedule the December 2016 update:
however, you skipped the June 2016 update.
Which of the following is true?

A. You can schedule the December 2016 update without scheduling the June 2016 update.
B. You can skip both updates and schedule all to be completed when the June 2017 update is
available.
C. You must schedule the June 2016 update before you can schedule the December 2016 update.
D. You can schedule both updates to be completed at the same time.

Answer: A

Question: 4

You are the system administrator for an organization that has a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment
hosted in country/region 1.
Your organization just acquired a new company in country/region 2.
You need to ensure that the instance created for the users of the acquired company does not share
storage space with all of your current instances.
What should you create to accomplish this goal?

A. a new production instance in country/region 1 on your existing tenant
B. a new production instance in a new tenant in country/region 2
C. a new sandbox instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant
D. a new production instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant

Answer: B

Question: 5

You are the system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You have imported 3 GB of data into an instance, but the storage utilization for your subscription
does not reflect the used storage space.
What is causing this discrepancy?

A. You imported the data into a sandbox instance.
B. Custom indexing is enabled on your instance.
C. You imported the data into a preview instance.
D. Data utilization is calculated every 48 hours.

Answer: C

Question: 6

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You have two production instances and four sandbox instances. A new update is coming out What is
true about the updates?

A. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are each managed separately.
B. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed separately. The production instances are
managed together.
C. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are all managed together.
D. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed together.
E. The production instances are managed separately.

Answer: A

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Try Valid Avaya Certified Integration Specialist 7141X Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Avaya
Exam Code 7141X
Full Exam Name Avaya Equinox Solution with Avaya Aura Collaboration Applications Integration
Certification Name Avaya Certified Integration Specialist
Technology

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Version: 10.0
Question: 1

Which service is delivered by Avaya Aura Device Services? (AADS)

A. AADS delivers Audio-Recording capabilities to Equinox Clients
B. AADS delivers automated user-tailored, dynamic configuration discovery, Single Sign-on and
unified contacts experience
C. AADS delivers Video-Recording capabilities to Equinox Clients
D. AADS delivers automated user-tailored, multimedia Messaging capabilities to Equinox Clients and
one-X® Endpoints

Answer: B

Question: 2

Which Database service is used by Avaya Aura Device Services (AADS)?

A. AADS uses a proprietary embedded database server inside AADS.
B. AADS uses a separate PostgreSQL Database Server for data storage
C. AADS uses an embedded instance of the standard Cassandra database
D. AADS uses the Cassandra Database service embedded in the Session Manager

Answer: C

Question: 3

The Avaya Aura® Web Gateway (AAWG) needs to be configured to use an Avaya Aura® Media Server
(AAMS).
How does the Avaya Aura® Web Gateway (AAWG) get associated to a particular Avaya Aura® Media
Server (AAMS)?

A. The Media Server FQDN(s) is/are dynamically discovered by Avaya Aura® Web Gateway (AAWG)
using DNS and Avaya Aura® Device Services (AADS) Dynamic Discovery process
B. The Media Server FQDN(s) is/are statically configured in under Media Settings in Avaya Aura® Web
Gateway (AAWG) web GUI
C. The Media Server is configured to be in a Location using the SMGR web GUI and then that location
is selected using the Avaya Aura® Web Gateway (AAWG) web GU
D. The Media Server IP Address(es) is/are statically configured under Media Settings in Avaya Aura®
Web Gateway (AAWG) web GUI

Answer: C

Question: 4

For an Avaya Equinox™ Management Geo-redundancy deployment, which three servers are
required? (Choose three.)

A. Backup Server
B. Slave Server
C. Master Server
D. Active Server
E. Standby Server

Answer: A,D,E

Question: 5

An Avaya Equinox™ Streaming and Recording (AESR) deployment can scale to a maximum of how
many users?

A. 100,000
B. 16,000
C. 10,000
D. 5000

Answer: A

Question: 6

How is Presence information exchanged between the Presence application and the Avaya Equinox
thick Client?

A. Using HTTPS via Session Manager
B. Using SIP directly
C. Using SIP via Session Manager
D. Using HTTPS directly

Answer: D

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Try Valid SC series DES-1721 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Dell EMC
Exam Code DES-1721
Full Exam Name Specialist – Implementation Engineer, SC Series
Certification Name SC series
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

You are installing a new SC9000. Which procedure should be used to install and configure the
system?

A. Connect through the iDRAC port
B. Connect through a null modem cable to the serial port
C. Connect through the Dell Storage Manager Client
D. Connect through the supplied proprietary serial cable to the serial port

Answer: D

Question: 2

An administrator wants to configure an SC Series array to use Virtual Port Mode. What is a
requirement to accomplish this task?

A. NPIV must be disabled on Fibre Channel switches
B. I/O Controller cards must use a single-ID firmware version
C. Fibre Channel switches must use a switched fabric topology
D. Activation license must be purchased and installed

Answer: D

Question: 3

What are the possible methods to upgrade the firmware on a Brocade switch?

A. FTP, SFTP, and Web Tools
B. USB, FTP, and SFTP
C. USB, FTP, and Web Tools
D. USB, SFTP, and Web Tools

Answer: C

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Try Valid Network Security Specialist FortiSandbox Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

Vendor Fortinet
Exam Code FortiSandbox
Full Exam Name FortiSandbox 2.0.3 Specialist
Certification Name Network Security Specialist
Technology FortiSandbox Implementations

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FortiSandbox exam questions, FortiSandbox PDF dumps; FortiSandbox exam dumps:: https://www.dumpsschool.com/FortiSandbox-exam-dumps.html (21 Q&A) (New Questions Are 100% Available! Also Free Practice Test Software!)

Latest and Most Accurate Fortinet FortiSandbox Dumps:

Version: 7.0
Question: 1

What mechanism does FortiGate use to avoid sending a file that has been already inspected to
FortiSandbox?

A. FortiGate sends the file name to FortiGuard. FortiGuard checks if a file with that name has been
already inspected.
B. FortiGate sends the file name to FortiSandbox. FortiSandbox checks if it has already inspected a
file with that name.
C. FortiGate sends a hash of the file to FortiSandbox. FortiSandbox checks if it has already inspected a
file with that hash.
D. FortiGate searches its cache of a list of file names that it has already inspected.

Answer: B

Question: 2

Which methods can be used to submit files to FortiSandbox for inspection? (Choose two.)

A. File shares
B. FTP upload
C. SFTP upload
D. JSON API

Answer: A,D

Question: 3

Which protocols can a FortiSandbox inspect when is deployed in sniffer mode? (Choose two.)

A. MAPI
B. FTPS
C. HTTP
D. POP3

Answer: C,D

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