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Try Valid Alfresco Content Services ACSCE-5X Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor Alfresco
Exam Code ACSCE-5X
Full Exam Name Alfresco Content Services Certified Engineer
Certification Name Alfresco Content Services
Technology Content Services systems

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

How should Smart Folders be identified and recognized?

A. Smart Folders should be recognized by their type smf:smartFolder
B. Smart Folders should be recognized by parent-child type used smf:contains
C. Smart Folders should be recognized by their aspect smf:smartFolder
D. Smart Folders should be recognized by the special node reference used.
E. Smart Folders can not be recognized as they are not different from any other cm:folder.

Answer: D

Question: 2

If an object is moved to a different folder, what will happen to the node’s security permissions?

A. It will inherit the ACL from the new parent folder.
B. It will inherit the ACL from the user who is moving it.
C. It will inherit the system wide ACL.
D. It will keep its old ACL.

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which of the following is not an Alfresco-supplied subsystem category?

A. Dictionary.
B. Authentication.
C. Audit.
D. Search.

Answer: A

Question: 4

When testing an Alfresco Content Services extension under high levels of concurrency, you notice
that some transactions are failing due to locking issues with the database. What is an appropriate
way to resolve this?

A. Manually unlock the offending records and start the testing again.
B. Directly use Alfresco’s database connection pool and write your own SQL.
C. Use the RetryingTransactionHelper to retry code that fails due to locking.
D. Rewrite the queries used by your application to reduce the chance of the lock.

Answer: A

Question: 5

What does it mean when it is said in Solr indexing that the index is “eventually consistent”?

A. The index will only be consistent after a server restart.
B. The index will become consistent when there are no more transactions to index.
C. The index becomes consistent once a day when the index job runs.
D. The index can only be consistent when the Lucene index job eventually runs.

Answer: B

Question: 6

You have been tasked to develop a solution that will notify an external system when updates are
made to certain documents. These documents can be of any type and the content authors will make
the decision if the document needs this “notification” functionality. Select the simplest combination
steps that will implement this solution.

A. Define a new “notify” aspect with a “multi” peer association. Create and register a policy behavior
that, when content is updates, users can associate their content via this aspect. As associations are
being made, the external notification request will be triggered.
B. Define a new “notify” aspect with no properties. Create and register a policy behavior that, if this
aspect is present, will make the external notification request. Users can simply add this aspect to
their content item.
C. Extend cm:content to provide an additional “notify” property. Create a policy behavior that will
look at the “notify” property and, if set, make the external notification request. Users simply create
cm:content items.
D. Extend sys:base to provide an additional “notify” property. Create a new policy that will look at
the “notify” property and, if set, make the external notification request. Users can simply call an
action against their content item.

Answer: A

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Try Valid Performance Architect HCE-3700 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor Hitachi
Exam Code HCE-3700
Full Exam Name Hitachi Vantara Certified Expert – Performance Architect
Certification Name Performance Architect
Technology Storage Solutions

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

What are two appropriate criteria for evaluating a batch job performance? (Choose two.)

A. elapsed time and/or throughput (MBs, IOPS)
B. storage response time
C. customer requirements
D. host initiators utilization

Answer: AB

Question: 2

You are evaluating storage system performance for an interactive workload. What are three
appropriate
criteria in this situation? (Choose three.)

A. customer requirements
B. throughput (MBs)
C. elapsed time
D. storage system response time
E. resource utilization (% busy)

Answer: BCD

Question: 3

A 10K RPM Small Form Factor 600 GB disk drive has a 3 ms average rotational latency and a 4 ms
average seek time. How many random read IOPS would you expect from a 4D+4D RAID group using
these drives before any consideration for cache hits or queuing optimization benefits?

A. approximately 570 IOPS
B. approximately 1,140 IOPS
C. approximately 1,530 IOPS
D. approximately 2,280 IOPS

Answer: D

Question: 4

Which two environments are suitable for cost effective use of Hitachi Accelerated Flash disk media?
(Choose two.)

A. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) data warehouse
B. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) with HDT
C. large scale Consumer Video on Demand (CVOD)
D. Virtual Desktop (VDI)

Answer: AB

Question: 5

How many back-end disk operations are normally required to complete a small block random write
operation to a LUN on a RAID 5 group?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

Answer: C

Question: 6

In a VSP G200 system, what are two advantages of RAID 1+0 compared to RAID 5/6 for random write
workloads? (Choose two.)

A. RAID 1+0 provides more useable capacity per for the same number of drives.
B. RAID 1+0 has less processing overhead.
C. Disk virtualization is lower.
D. RAID 1+0 has more efficient pre-fetch operation.

Answer: AC

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Try Valid CyberArk Certified Sentry CAU301 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor CyberArk
Exam Code CAU301
Full Exam Name CyberArk Sentry
Certification Name CyberArk Certified Sentry
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

What would be a good use case for the Replicate module?

A. Recovery Time Objectives or Recovery Point Objectives are at or near zero
B. Integration with an Enterprise Backup Solution is required.
C. Off site replication is required.
D. PSM is used

Answer: A

Question: 2

What is the PRIMARY reason for installing more than 1 active CPM?

A. Installing CPMs in multiple sites prevents complex firewall rules to manage devices at remote
sites.
B. Multiple instances create fault tolerance.
C. Multiple instances increase response time.
D. Having additional CPMs increases the maximum number of devices CyberArk can manage

Answer: D

Question: 3

What is the purpose of the password Reconcile process?

A. To test that CyberArk is storing accurate credentials for accounts.
B. To change the password of an account according to organizationally defined password rules
C. To allow CyberArk to manage unknown or lost credentials.
D. To generate a new complex password.

Answer: A

Question: 4

Which file would you modify to configure the vault to send SNMP traps to your monitoring solution?

A. dbparm ini
B. paragent.ini
C. ENEConf.ini I
D. padr ini

Answer: A

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Try Valid IBM Certified Solution Designer C2070-994 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor IBM
Exam Code C2070-994
Full Exam Name IBM Datacap V9.0 Solution Designer
Certification Name IBM Certified Solution Designer
Technology IBM Solution Value

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Question: 1

How is Rulerunner scaled vertically?

A. Add a load balancer to spread the load between Rulerunner servers.
B. Add additional Rulerunner servers to match volume throughput needs.
C. Increase the number of threads without additional servers or hardware.
D. Deploy the Datacap.xml and application files to each of the client
servers.

Answer: C

Question: 2

An administrator wants to configure threads in their IBM Datacap
environment.
Which tool will they use?

A. Application Manager
B. Rulerunner Manager
C. Maintenance Manager
D. Datacap Configuration Manager

Answer: B

Question: 3

A company wants to export documents to a repository that does not
have a specific action library in IBM Datacap, such as P8, CM8, IS,
Database, Sharepoint or text file.
What other alternative might they be able to use?

A. Install the repository on the Datacap server directly.
B. Use the CMISClient action library if the repository supports CMIS.
C. Use the GenericExport action library to export to any type of repository.
D. None. Exporting can only be done to the specific repositories provided.

Answer: B

Question: 4

An administrator must configure security on the Loan application so that
Loan_Processors can delete batches and run the verify task.
Which option best describes how the administrator will accomplish this?

A. Datacap implements privileges and permissions through external
directory service providers. The administrator will use the directory service
admin tool to configure delete and enable verify.
B. Datacap implements authentication and authorization using TMA. The
administrator will use Datacap Navigator or the web client to configure the
delete permission and enable the verify privilege.
C. Datacap implements authentication and authorization through external
directory service providers. The administrator will use the directory service
admin tool to configure delete and enable verify.
D. Datacap implements privileges and permissions to determine the
actions users and groups can take and the job tasks they can run. The
administrator will use an appropriate admin tool to set the delete privilege
and enable the verify permission.

Answer: D

Question: 5

A solution designer needs to setup a Datacap Report Viewer website to

provide information to business managers.
Which of the following platforms is the Datacap Report Viewer website
compatible with?

A. Oracle WebLogic Server
B. IBM WebSphere Application Server
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server
D. WildFly (formerly known as JBoss AS)

Answer: C

Question: 6

A business implementing IBM Datacap Navigator wants to remotely scan

its hard copy pages. They are in the initial state of adding and configuring
all the scanners on their system to accomplish this.
When scanning with Datacap Navigator, ActiveX is supported for TWAIN
scanning with which browser type?

A. Apple Safari
B. Mozilla Firefox
C. Google Chrome
D. Internet Explorer

Answer: D

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Try Valid Check Point Security Master 156-115.80 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor CheckPoint
Exam Code 156-115.80
Full Exam Name Check Point Certified Security Master – R80
Certification Name Check Point Security Master
Technology Security Solutions

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Torn installs the
systems this way, how many machines will he need if the does NOT include a Smart Console machine
in this calculations?

A. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.
B. On machine
C. Two machines
D. Three machines

Answer: C

Question: 2

In order to lest Cluster XL failovers which command would you use one of the ClusterXL nodes to
initiate a failover?

A. ClusterXL_admin down –p
B. ClusterXL_admin up –p
C. cphaprob –d TEST –s ok register
D. cphaprob –d TEXT –s problem unregister

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which of the following is NOT a valid “fwaccel” parameter?

A. Stat
B. Stats
C. Templates
D. packets

Answer: D

Question: 4

Which of the following is not one of the relational database domains that stores the management
configuration?

A. User Domain
B. System Domain
C. Global Domain
D. Audit Domain

Answer: D

Question: 5

What file extension should be used with fw monitor to allow the output file to be imported and read
in Wire shark?

A. .cap
B. .exe
C. . tgz
D. .pcap

Answer: A

Question: 6

Where will the usermode core files located?

A. /var/log/dump/usermode
B. /var/suroot
C. $FW3DIR/var/log/dump/usermode
D. $CPDIR/var/log/dump/usermode

Answer: A

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Try Valid Android Application Development AND-801 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor Android
Exam Code AND-801
Full Exam Name Android Application Development v8
Certification Name Android Application Development
Technology

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Question: 1

Android is an open source, Linux-based software stack.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

Question: 2

Which of the following choices is the main role of the button which is illustrated in the
red rectangle over the Android Studio tool bar?

a- Run button.
b. Debug button.
c- Apply changes button.
d- ADV manager button.

Answer: c

Question: 3

Each Android application runs in its own process and with its own instance of ART on
devices running Android version 8.0 (API Level 26) or higher.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

Question: 4

Which of the following choices is the main role of the Preview button which is
illustrated in the red circle of the vertical Android Studio tool bar?

a- It shows the activity layout in text (XML) and design mode at the same time.
b- It shows the activity layout in print review.
c- It shows the Java or Kotlin code of an activity.
d- It shows the activity blue print preview mode.

Answer: a

Question: 5

The Android library code is organized in such a way that it can be used by multiple
Android applications.

a. True
b. False

Answer: a

Question: 6

The following image shows part of the content inside file activity_main.xml in an
Android application:
Which of the following options is correct?

a- The app user can select one radio button only at a time.
b- The app user can select the two radio buttons at the same time.
c- The only purpose of RadioGroup tag is adding a group of colors to the inside of the radio
buttons.
d- This is not an XML code; it is a Kotlin code.

Answer: a

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Try Valid SAP Certified Application Associate C_TBW60_74 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor SAP
Exam Code C_TBW60_74
Full Exam Name SAP Certified Application Associate – Modeling and Data Management with SAP BW 7.4
Certification Name SAP Certified Application Associate
Technology SAP Application Associate

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Question: 1

Which of the following record modes delivered by a DataSource can you directly upload to an InfoCube?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

a) Reverse Image
b) Before Image and After Image
c) Delete Image
d) Additive Image
e) After Image

Answer: A,B,D

02. Which of the following initial tasks should you perform when designing an SAP BW data model?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

a) Analyze relationships between the characteristics and their attributes.
b) Evaluate the volume of data to be loaded.
c) Evaluate the number and types of users.
d) Evaluate the format of data to be loaded.

Answer: A,C

03. Which of the following settings can you make for error handling in the data transfer process?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

a) Write invalid records into the target InfoProvider.
b) Process the correct records and allow reporting on them.
c) Process the correct records and do NOT allow reporting on them.
d) Get all new data in source request by request.

Answer: B,C

04. Your customer wants to model their SAP BW system according to best practices. You propose using a layered scalable architecture (LSA). Which of the following steps must you perform?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

a) Model disjunct transaction and master data domains for application-specific reporting.
b) Implement the entire corporate information factory enterprise data warehouse architecture.
c) Define specific scenarios for data logistics shaped by the customer environment.
d) Determine which LSA layers are relevant based on the customer’s requirements and objectives.

Answer: C,D

05. What does SAP recommend you do to improve the overall reporting performance of a standard InfoCube in SAP BW 7.4?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

a) Include the InfoCube into a semantically partitioned object (SPO).
b) Execute a pre-load OLAP cache process in a process chain.
c) Create aggregates.
d) Create one or more line-item dimensions.
e) Split the standard InfoCube data into several InfoCubes contained in a MultiProvider.

Answer: A,C,D

06. Your customer wants to migrate SAP BW 3.x Data Flows to SAP BW 7.x Data Flows. What can they do to mitigate the risks of the migration?
Please choose the correct answer.

a) Use emulation first to model the Data Flow with transformations and a data transfer process.
b) Create the Data Flow manually to create update rules and a data transfer process.
c) Use emulation first to model the Data Flow with update rules and a data transfer process.
d) Create the Data Flow manually to create transformations and a data transfer process.

Answer: A

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Try Valid CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor CompTIA
Exam Code CV0-002
Full Exam Name CompTIA Cloud+
Certification Name CompTIA Cloud+
Technology Cloud computing

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

A new browser version has been deployed to all users at a company. After the deployment, users
report that they can no longer access the company’s secure time-card system, which is hosted by a
SaaS provider. A technician investigates and discovers a security error is received upon opening the
site. If the browser is rolled back to the older version, the site is accessible again. Which of the
following is the MOST likely cause of the security error users are seeing?

A. SSL certificate expiration on the SaaS load balancers
B. Federation issues between the SaaS provider and the company
C. Obsolete security technologies implemented on the SaaS servers
D. Unencrypted communications between the users and the application

Answer: C

Question: 2

Due to a competitor’s unlimited data plan, a service provider is struggling and wants to transform its
business services to be more hosting oriented. A cloud architect is tasked to review current cloud
resource capacity and provide recommendations and a plan for better resource utilization. Given the
following report:
Which of the following is the BEST option for the architect to suggest?

A. Downsize by migrating all media services to one server and decommission two servers.
B. Downsize by decommissioning servers 2 and 3 and reallocate media servers to hosts.
C. Downsize by migrating all media services to one server, add one host server, and decommission
one server.
D. Upsize the hosting services by turning server 1 into a host server.

Answer: A

Question: 3

A cloud administrator is receiving alerts that the disk on several systems is 90% full. Upon reviewing
the systems, the administrator determines that the log directory is using 50% of the disk. The
company has a 14-day retention policy for all logs. Which of the following is the BEST solution to
implement to minimize future alerts?

A. Orchestrate a job to rotate the logs and upload to external storage.
B. Delete any log files in the directory that are larger than 20MB.
C. Archive the existing logs in the directory and upload to external storage.
D. Add additional storage space to the log directory for the servers.

Answer: A

Question: 4

A company is seeking a new backup solution for its virtualized file servers that fits the following
characteristics:
The files stored on the servers are extremely large.
Existing files receive multiple small changes per day.
New files are only created once per month.
All backups are being sent to a cloud repository.
Which of the following would BEST minimize backup size

A. Local snapshots
B. Differential backups
C. File-based replication
D. Change block tracking

Answer: B

Question: 5

A company has deployed a four-node cluster in a COLO environment with server configurations listed
below. The company wants to ensure there is 50% overhead for failover and redundancy. There are
currently eight VMs running within the cluster with four vCPUs x32GB each. The company wants to
better utilize its resources within the cluster without compromising failover and redundancy.
Given the information above, which of the following should a cloud administrator do to BEST
accommodate failover and redundancy requirements?

A. Ensure hyperthreading is being utilized with physical server CPUs.
B. Ensure dynamic resource allocation is being utilized.
C. Overcommit memory, and the systems will allocate resources as required.
D. Set hard limits for VM resources and turn on hyperthreading.

Answer: B

Question: 6

A courier company has virtualized its packing software application. The CSA needs to confirm the
deployment is utilizing the correct amount of CPU per virtual instance. After confirming the
deployment requirements, the CSA should log into the cloud services portal to ensure that:

A. the VMs with the most CPU cores available have been selected.
B. smaller VMs are being selected to reduce the total deployment cost.
C. the deployment is utilizing the recommended amount of CPUs per VM.
D. the alarms on CPU utilization have been enabled.

Answer: C

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Try Valid IBM Analytics Platform C2090-101 Dumps – [2018 Dumps]

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Vendor IBM
Exam Code C2090-101
Full Exam Name Big Data Engineer
Certification Name IBM Analytics Platform
Technology Big Data Platform

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Version: 7.0
Question: 1

Which statement is TRUE concerning optimizing the load performance?

A. You can improve the performance by increasing the number of map tasks assigned to the load
B. When loading large files the number of files that you load does not impact the performance of the
LOAD HADOOP statement
C. You can improve the performance by decreasing the number of map tasks that are assigned to the
load and adjusting the heap size
D. It is advantageous to run the LOAD HADOOP statement directly pointing to large files located in
the host file system as opposed to copying the files to the DFS prior to load

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the use of Data Click to load data into
Biglnsights? (Choose two)

A. Big SQL cannot be used to access the data moved in by Data Click because the data is in Hive
B. You must import metadata for all sources and targets that you want to make available for Data
Click activities
C. Connections from the relational database source to HDFS are discovered automatically from
within Data Click
D. Hive tables are automatically created every time you run an activity that moves data from a
relational database into HDFS
E. HBase tables are automatically created every time you run an activity that moves data from a
relational database into HDFS

Answer: AC

Question: 3

Which of the following statements regarding importing streaming data from InfoSphere Streams into
Hadoop is TRUE?

A. InfoSphere Streams can both read from and write data to HDFS
B. The Streams Big Data toolkit operators that interface with HDFS uses Apache Flume to integrate
with Hadoop
C. Streams applications never need to be concerned with making the data schemas consistent with
those on Hadoop
D. Big SQL can be used to preprocess the data as it flows through InfoSphere Streams before the data
lands in HDFS

Answer: A

Question: 4

Which of the following is TRUE about storing an Apache Spark object in serialized form?

A. It is advised to use Java serialization over Kryo serialization
B. Storing the object in serialized form will lead to faster access times
C. Storing the object in serialized form will lead to slower access times
D. All of the above

Answer: B

Question: 5

Which ONE of the following statements regarding Sqoop is TRUE?

A. HBase is not supported as an import target
B. Data imported using Sqoop is always written to a single Hive partition
C. Sqoop can be used to retrieve rows newer than some previously imported set of rows
D. Sqoop can only append new rows to a database table when exporting back to a database

Answer: B

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Vendor Huawei
Exam Code H11-861
Full Exam Name Huawei Certified Network Professional – Video Conference
Certification Name Huawei Certified Network Professional Video Conferencing
Technology

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Latest and Most Accurate Huawei H11-861 Dumps:

Question: 1

(True or False)Wireshark can process data and monitor the network status.( )

A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Question: 2

2. (Multiple choice, select 3 Answers)The GK provides the following functions.( )

A. Address translation
B. Access authentication
C. Bandwidth control
D. Conference control

Answer: ABC

Question: 3

3. (True or False)H.225 used for medial channel control including call signaling (Q.931) and RAS communication between endpoints and the GK.( )

A. True
B. False

Answer: B

Question: 4

4. (Single choice)In H.323 protocol, the last number 3 means.( )

A. B-ISDN
B. QOS
C. PNN
D. GSTN and radio network

Answer: C

Question: 5

5. (Single choice)In normal situation, which part is not contained in the “endpoint”( ).

A. Terminal
B. MCU

C. Gateway
D. GK

Answer: D

Question: 6

6. (Single choice) RAS is carried at the UDP layer and this port number can be configured on the MCU,the default value of source port is( ).

A. 1729
B. 1719
C. 1720
D. 1725

Answer: A

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